Now that that is out of my system...I am just learning about the Russian Royals....it was told to my Grandmother when my father was born that she and my Grandfather BOTH had recessive genes and that is where it came from. NOW in all my research that I have done, and I have done a lot, I have never come across this explanation for it. I have heard of genetic mutation, and it just being in the chromosones that the good Lord gave you, but never this.
First of all, a man can't have a recessive gene of hemophilia. If he has the gene, he has the disease. It can be recessive for a female because her other chromosome X is able to ''cancel'' the hemophiliac gene. To be clear, here a diagram where the X in red represent the hemophilia gene.
For a woman there's two possible combination :
XX - where she's just wanna be a carrier and
XX (that means that both her mother was a carier or hemophiliac AND her father was hemophiliac.) --and here, that female would be hemophiliac.
For mans, if they receive the gene by their mothe like this :
XY, they would automatically be hemophiliac becaue the Y chromosome can't "cancel'' the hemophilia gene. When a man is hemophiliac, their daughters would automatically be carrier, because they would get his
X chromosome. Their sons, on the other hand, won't be affected by this because they receive the Y chromosome.
In your case,(it will be different if its your maternal grandparents) either if your paternal grandfather was or wasn't hemophiliac, that changes anything. From what you've said, your paternal grandmother wasn't hemophiliac, so she could have been a carrier, or like the Queen Victoria descendents, it could have been a genetic mutation. For you, your mother HAD to be a carrier, so you received
XX chromosomes, and your chromosomes can't ''cancel" the hemophilia because they were both affected.
I hope it helped you !
K.
